- Jun 6, 2020
- 11,559
- 4,422
Is it possible to directly mapping an int() to byte array? then the byte array can be accessed as int values.
For instance, int(0) will be b(0), b(1), b(2), b(3) and int(1) will be b(4) to b(7). In C/C++ this can be achieved by an int pointer pointed to a memory space where byte() stored. ByteConverter can do this but for repeated conversion tasks like bitmap frame refreshing every certain milliseconds I am not sure whether the internal conversion may bring some overhead? Also bit.shift or multiply/add from 4 bytes to make an int will also lead to some overhead. Thanks.
For instance, int(0) will be b(0), b(1), b(2), b(3) and int(1) will be b(4) to b(7). In C/C++ this can be achieved by an int pointer pointed to a memory space where byte() stored. ByteConverter can do this but for repeated conversion tasks like bitmap frame refreshing every certain milliseconds I am not sure whether the internal conversion may bring some overhead? Also bit.shift or multiply/add from 4 bytes to make an int will also lead to some overhead. Thanks.
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